+ Reply to Thread
Results 1 to 6 of 6

IRR&NPV Financial lease

  1. #1
    Registered User
    Join Date
    07-22-2005
    Posts
    18

    IRR&NPV Financial lease

    Financial lease calculations.
    There is an asset of fair value @ 3,512,000. There are 4 payments – 150,000 quarterly and yet the last one (after year) is purchase of this asset @ 3,200,000. Quaterly payments are made in advance. To record the value I need to use min of either fair value or NPV of MLP.
    First of all, I need to calculate IRR, then MLP based on IRR. A colleague of mine told me that because of advance payments IRR should be calculated as IRR(3,362,000…150,000…150,000…150,000…3,200,000) saying that initial fair value should be decreased by 150,000. But as I understand it should be like IRR(3,512,000…150,000…150,000…150,000…150,000…3,200,000)

    Appreciate if you can advise on these functions and correct lease treatment since I need to calculate impact on P&L & BS of finance charge and reduction in obligations. Unfortunetely never met with financial lease. If you know any useful links on this issue …I’ll be obliged to you for them.

    Thanks,
    Littleps

  2. #2
    Fred Smith
    Guest

    Re: IRR&NPV Financial lease

    IRR will work as long as you properly sign the cash flows. For example:

    =irr(-3512000,150000,150000,150000,150000,3200000)

    Yields a return of 1.73%.

    The above flows would assume the balloon payment is made 15 months after the
    initial lease. If the balloon payment is supposed to be 12 months after the
    lease (ie, coincident with the last quarterly payment), you would use:

    =irr(-3512000,150000,150000,150000,3350000)

    Also, you might want to look into the XIRR function (part of the Analysis
    Tookpak addin). I find it a lot easier to use, because you simply specify the
    cash flow and the date on which it occurred.

    --
    Regards,
    Fred


    "littleps" <[email protected]> wrote in
    message news:[email protected]...
    >
    > Financial lease calculations.
    > There is an asset of fair value @ 3,512,000. There are 4 payments -
    > 150,000 quarterly and yet the last one (after year) is purchase of this
    > asset @ 3,200,000. Quaterly payments are made in advance. To record the
    > value I need to use min of either fair value or NPV of MLP.
    > First of all, I need to calculate IRR, then MLP based on IRR. A
    > colleague of mine told me that because of advance payments IRR should
    > be calculated as IRR(3,362,000.150,000.150,000.150,000.3,200,000)
    > saying that initial fair value should be decreased by 150,000. But as I
    > understand it should be like
    > IRR(3,512,000.150,000.150,000.150,000.150,000.3,200,000)
    >
    > Appreciate if you can advise on these functions and correct lease
    > treatment since I need to calculate impact on P&L & BS of finance
    > charge and reduction in obligations. Unfortunetely never met with
    > financial lease. If you know any useful links on this issue .I'll be
    > obliged to you for them.
    >
    > Thanks,
    > Littleps
    >
    >
    > --
    > littleps
    > ------------------------------------------------------------------------
    > littleps's Profile:
    > http://www.excelforum.com/member.php...o&userid=25482
    > View this thread: http://www.excelforum.com/showthread...hreadid=526304
    >




  3. #3

    RE: IRR&NPV Financial lease

    "littleps" wrote:
    > Financial lease calculations.


    First, given the obvious professional liability of the situation,
    it behooves you to continue to seek professional assistance
    from a known-competent source. You should not assume
    that anyone in cyberspace is competent or is who or what
    they say they are. You have obviously already tried that by
    talking to a colleague. It might be worthwhile to pay for some
    advice from a CPA or similar professional. You can probably
    write off the expense of the consultation.

    I can tell you that I have no experience with financial leases.

    > There is an asset of fair value @ 3,512,000. There are
    > 4 payments – 150,000 quarterly and yet the last one
    > (after year) is purchase of this asset @ 3,200,000.
    > Quaterly payments are made in advance. [....] A colleague
    > of mine told me that because of advance payments IRR
    > should be calculated as
    > IRR(3,362,000…150,000…150,000…150,000…3,200,000)
    > saying that initial fair value should be decreased by 150,000.
    > But as I as I understand it should be like
    > IRR(3,512,000…150,000…150,000…150,000…150,000…3,200,000)


    Both answers are correct, depending on details that you fail
    to provide. See my questions below.

    Your problem seems similar to an example in the HP 12C
    Owner's Handbook (p.177, Rev E, c. 1982). You might look
    there for more guidance.

    In either case, one important fix: the first term should be
    negative: -3,512,000 or -3,362,000.

    Some other details to take into consideration when formulating
    the exact IRR expression:

    1. You wrote "4 payments – 150,000 quarterly and yet the last
    one (after year) is purchase of this asset @ 3,200,000". That
    sounds like 3 quarterly payments of $150,000 and a 4th
    quarterly(?) payment of $3,200,000.

    That is __not__ what your IRR formuation does. Your IRR
    formulation has 4 quarterly payments of $150,000 and a
    5th (quarterly?) payment of $3,200,000. Your colleague's
    formulation has 3 quarterly payments of $150,000 and a
    4th quarterly(?) payment of $3,200,000.

    2. It is unclear from your English description and from your
    IRR "pseudocode" (i.e. not exactly written in Excel form)
    whether the quarterly payments are at the end or beginning
    of each quarter.

    Your formulation suggests that the 1st $150,000 is paid at
    the end of the 1st quarter. If, instead, the 1st $150,000 is
    paid at the beginning of the lease period, the first cash flow
    should be -3,512,000+150,000 = -3,362,000. In fact, that
    might what your colleague had in mind.

    3. It is unclear from your English description and from your
    IRR pseudocode whether the $3,200,000 is paid in the
    same period of time as each of the other payments. You
    wrote "after year". That sounds like the beginning or end
    of the 13th month after beginning of the lease.

    If that is the case, use XIRR (for uneven payment periods),
    or if you use IRR, be sure to use the same period of time
    for each cash flow -- for example, monthly -- using zeros
    to fill in periods between quarterly payments.


  4. #4
    Registered User
    Join Date
    07-22-2005
    Posts
    18
    Thank you for your replies.
    Actually as per agreemnt the folowing info is known:
    Cost of the asset is 3,512,000 at the beginning of the lease. Inception of the lease is let's say 01.01.2006 for convenience. 4 payments are to be made IN ADVANCE. It means that e.g. 01.01.2006 - 150,000; 01.04.2006 - 150,000; 01.07.2006 - 150,000; 01.10.2006 - 150,000. Then it says that the assset will be purchased on annivesary @ 3,200,000. My understanding is on Jan'07. The problem is correct calculation of internal rate of return (IRR). Based on this percentage rate I'll be able to pick out finance charge out of each pmnt.

    Thanks.

  5. #5
    Fred Smith
    Guest

    Re: IRR&NPV Financial lease

    Now that we have the data, calculating the result is easy. Your cash flow is as
    follows:

    01/01/06 -3,362,000
    04/01/06 150,000
    07/01/06 150,000
    10/01/06 150,000
    01/01/07 3,200,000

    Put those numbers in a table. Feed them to XIRR, as in =xirr(b1:b5,a1:a5). It
    will give you your answer (9.17%)

    Alternatively, you can use IRR because your cash flows happen at regular
    intervals. Remember, however, that the rate of return that IRR gives you is the
    *periodic* return. As your payments are quarterly, IRR will calculate a
    quarterly return. If you want an annual return, you will need to convert it.
    When you compare the two, you'll find a difference in the third decimal because
    your payments are not exactly the same number of days apart. That's why most
    people like XIRR.

    Have we solved your problem for you?

    --
    Regards,
    Fred


    "littleps" <[email protected]> wrote in
    message news:[email protected]...
    >
    > Thank you for your replies.
    > Actually as per agreemnt the folowing info is known:
    > Cost of the asset is 3,512,000 at the beginning of the lease. Inception
    > of the lease is let's say 01.01.2006 for convenience. 4 payments are to
    > be made IN ADVANCE. It means that e.g. 01.01.2006 - 150,000; 01.04.2006
    > - 150,000; 01.07.2006 - 150,000; 01.10.2006 - 150,000. Then it says that
    > the assset will be purchased on annivesary @ 3,200,000. My understanding
    > is on Jan'07. The problem is correct calculation of internal rate of
    > return (IRR). Based on this percentage rate I'll be able to pick out
    > finance charge out of each pmnt.
    >
    > Thanks.
    >
    >
    > --
    > littleps
    > ------------------------------------------------------------------------
    > littleps's Profile:
    > http://www.excelforum.com/member.php...o&userid=25482
    > View this thread: http://www.excelforum.com/showthread...hreadid=526304
    >




  6. #6
    Registered User
    Join Date
    07-22-2005
    Posts
    18
    Fred,
    Thank you for your time. It's more clear to me now. That background will be useful for me. Actually, at first I even didn't know about xirr, xnpv functions.

    Regards,
    littleps

+ Reply to Thread

Thread Information

Users Browsing this Thread

There are currently 1 users browsing this thread. (0 members and 1 guests)

Bookmarks

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts

Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.6.0 RC 1