With the IF function, when the logical_test is TRUE, the [value_if_false] is not calculated.
But if I have an INDIRECT function in [value_if_false], would it be calculated anyway?
I tried doing a search, but it seems I'm not using the correct search terms to get an answer.
Thanks in advance to anyone who can give me a definite answer ("I think..." replies are not answers).
Yes, it's volatile even in the executed false section of an IF.
If you use the evaluate formula feature in Excel you will see that any IF function that evaluates to TRUE calculates only the value if true part of the formula and then stops.
Ali
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The very existence of the volatile function causes the IF formula to calculate. Even if the cells referred to by that formula are not changed.
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