I am having a friendly argument at work in relation to how to calculate a mix variance, we all agree on the volume and Price analysis calc's.
We have two formulas that come out with the same result on a macro scale, however on a product by product basis they differ completely.
The theory is killing my brain and i was hoping that there may be someone here that can help show which logic makes more sense!?
Appreciate any thoughts on which is correct...!
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